CompTIA has released Security+ SY0-401 certification.

It covers the following topics:

• Application, Data and Host Security
• Access Control and Identity Management
• Threats and Vulnerabilities
• Network Security
• Compliance and Operational Security
• Cryptography

Checkout the new Security+ SY0-401 Practice Tests

Download CompTIA Security+ Practice Exams and Questions

Microsoft India has been conducting audits on several small businesses in India. They don't divulge as to how exactly they conduct the software audit. They depute a local rep to the company (usually with prior intimation). Once the auditors are inside the premises, they don't specify what they are going to do, but only ask for complete systems access. What was observed was that they had done forensics on each computer for past installations and inspected system and application logs, events, etc. This was done for each computer. They also use control panel and inspect things like s/w and h/w components installed in the systems. The auditor will not tell you what he's doing, but if you are knowledgeable, you will know that he is doing forensics on the systems (in the sense, that he is inspecting the logs/events/installed or uninstalled s/w etc). This is all done even without informing you what he's doing.

This only makes one to doubt how much Microsoft cares for privacy and confidentiality of other individuals and businesses.

I was told that after getting the report, they would pursue to buy any software that was used (but removed subsequently) or is being used if you don't have valid license from an authorized reseller in India.

One may ask as to why you need to allow an auditor to visit your premises? The answer is that they (Microsoft) say the matter would be escalated to their legal department if the audit is not allowed. Most small businesses don't have the capacity (like hiring a lawyer to reply to their legal enquiries, etc) to counter such a big company, and simply allow them to conduct an audit. It might so happen that some office s/w was installed without license (by some computer repair person, which you probably never used), and things would get complicated.

In the whole process, it is surprising how Microsoft is disregarding the Privacy and Confidentiality of the users (some times non users too) of its software in the process of doing software audit.

Question 26:
We want to go back to user EXEC from privileged EXEC. What command do we use to achieve this without exiting the session?
1. Exit
2. Log out
3. Disable
4. Logout
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: Click here for more information.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 27:
As a network administrator we want to make it easy to assign IP addresses to hosts. What protocol do we use?
1. DNS
2. DHCP
3. HSRP
4. NTP
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: DHCP, as described by RFC 1541, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is used for dynamically assigning network addresses and host specific configuration parameters.
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 28:
Which of the following Routing Protocols are considered Interior Protocols?
1. OSPF
2. EGP
3. RIP
4. EIGRP
5. BGP
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3 4
Explanation: Interior protocols are used for routing networks that are under a common network administration. All IP interior gateway protocols must be specified with a list of associated networks before routing activities can begin. A routing process listens to updates from other routers on these networks and broadcasts its own routing information on those same networks. Cisco IOS software supports the following interior routing protocols:
Internet Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)
Enhanced Internet Gateway Routing Protocol (Enhanced IGRP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 29:
Wireless LANs are defined by which IEEE standard?
1. 802.10
2. 802.5
3. 802.3
4. 802.11
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: Introduction to Wireless LANs
[Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN]
——————————————————————————–
Question 30:
What are some advantages of having a layered OSI Model? [Select all that apply]
1. Changes at one layer do not affect the other layers
2. Networks are harder to design
3. Different vendor's equipment can easily interoperate
4. Changes at one layer are propagated throughout the other layers
5. Prevents routing loops
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3
Explanation: The main goal of the OSI model is to allow different vendors' networks to interoperate. Some benefits of the OSI model are:
changes at a certain layer do no affect the other layers.
various types of hardware & software can communicate with each other.
networks are more extensible.
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 31:
Given the following network range 192.168.0.0/24. We want minimum 50 hosts on each of the available subnets. What will be the subnet mask?
1. /24
2. /25
3. /26
4. /27
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: 50 hosts require 6 bits of the last octet giving us 64 -2 = 62 possible hosts this satisfies our requirement and leaves us 2 bits over for the subnets. The default mask is /24 or 255.255.255.0 adding the 2 bits for the subnets it becomes 255.255.255.192 or /26.
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 32:
Which key-sequence would you use to move the cursor to the beginning of the line?
1. CTRL+ P
2. CTRL+ E
3. CTRL + A
4. CTRL + F
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: Keystrokes Purpose
Press Ctrl-B or press the left arrow key Moves the cursor back one character
Press Ctrl-F or press the right arrow key Moves the cursor forward one character
Press Ctrl-A Moves the cursor to the beginning of the command line
Press Ctrl-E Moves the cursor to the end of the command line
Press Esc B Moves the cursor back one word
Press Esc F Moves the cursor forward one word
Ctrl-P or the up arrow key Recalls commands in the history buffer, beginning with the most recent command. Repeat the key sequence to recall successively older commands
Ctrl-N or the down arrow key Returns to more recent commands in the history buffer after recalling commands with Ctrl-P or the up arrow key. Repeat the key sequence to recall successively more recent commands
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 33:


You are the administrator of network X. You decided to implement RIP in the following topology (see exhibit). You do not want R3 to receive RIP updates. What configuration changes need to be implemented?
1. Implement a passive-interface on R1
2. Nothing needs to be configured
3. Create a sub-interface on R1
4. Change the routing protocol to OSPF
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1
Explanation: To block RIP broadcasts on an interface connected to a subnet of a RIP-enabled network add the passive-interface command to the RIP Process.
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 34:
How do you enable SSH on your switch?
1. switch(config-line)#input ssh
2. switch(config-line)#transport input ssh
3. switch(config-line)#transport ssh
4. SSH is enabled by default
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: The transport input ssh command will allow SSH sessions to your switch. You also need to create a user and password and generate a public and private key pair.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 35:
When we have a variation in delay it is called?
1. Loss
2. Latency
3. Delay
4. Jitter
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: Jitter occurs when there is a variation in the delay.
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 36:

After connecting two routers back-to-back we are unable to ping across the serial connection. A closer look reveals that both serial interfaces have the following status:
'Serial0 is up, line protocol is down'
What needs to be configured on one of the routers to bring the serial interface up? [See the exhibit for network topology]
A) router1(config)# interface serial 0
router1(config-if)#clock rate 64000
B) router1(config)#interface serial 0
router1(config-if)#clockrate 64000
C) router2(config)#interface serial 0
router2(config-if)#clockrate 64000
D) router2(config)#interface serial 0
router2(config-if)#clock rate 64000
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: When connecting router back-to-back with a DTE/DCE cross-over cable we need to set the clocking on the DCE side of the connection. The show controllers serial [interface nr] command tells you what side is DTE or DCE.
[Implement and verify WAN links]
——————————————————————————–
Question 37:

We try to look at the log on the router but we get the following [see exhibit]. What do we need to do in order to view the log?


1. Reboot the router
2. Use the logging buffered global configuration command
3. Use the enable log all global configuration command
4. We can not do anything since there is no such thing as a log
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: To enable system messages to a local buffer use the logging buffered [size] command in global configuration mode. The default size is 4096k and once this is full older messages will be overwritten with newer ones.
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 38:
HTTP and FTP are found at which OSI layer?
1. Network layer
2. Transport layer
3. Application layer
4. Presentation layer
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation:
Layer Name Protocol/Services Details
7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network
6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation
5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions
4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links
3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format
2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium
1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 39:
For the network 192.168.1.0/27, what is the 5th subnet's network address, broadcast address and host range? IP Subnet-zero is configured.
1. Subnet 192.168.1.0, Broadcast 192.168.1.31, hosts 192.1683.1.1 – 192.168.1.30
2. Subnet 192.168.1.160, Broadcast 192.168.1.191, hosts 192.168.1.161 – 192.168.1.190
3. Subnet 192.168.1.96, Broadcast 192.168.1.127, hosts 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126
4. Subnet 192.168.1.128, Broadcast 192.168.1.159, hosts 192.168.1.129 – 192.168.1.158
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: The default subnet mask for a class C address is /24 so we will have 3 bits for subnets.
So the total amount of subnets is 2^3 = 8 subnets
On each subnet we will have 2^5 – 2 = 30 hosts on each subnet
Now we will calculate the subnet ranges:
The following table is the binary version of the last octet.
Subnet bits Host Bits IP Address Role
000 00000 192.168.1.0 1st subnet network address
000 00001 192.168.1.1 host nr 1
000 00010 192.168.1.2 host nr 2
000 11110 192.168.1.30 host nr 30
000 11111 192.168.1.31 broadcast address for 1st subnet
001 00000 192.168.1.32 2nd subnet network address
001 00010 192.168.1.34 host nr 2 on 2nd subnet
001 11111 192.168.1.63 broadcast address for 2nd subnet
011 00000 192.168.1.96 4th subnet network address
011 11111 192.168.1.127 broadcast address 4th subnet
100 00000 192.168.1.128 5th subnet network address
100 11111 192.168.1.159 broadcast address 5th subnet
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 40:
What kind of attack is designed to gather information?
1. DoS attack
2. DDoS attack
3. Reconnaissance attack
4. Access attack
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is an attack aimed at gathering information as preparation for further attacks.
[Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats]
——————————————————————————–
Question 41:
Which of the following are considered CPE?
1. CSU/DSU
2. Telco switch
3. Router
4. Demarcation point
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3
Explanation: The CSU/DSU and router are considered CPE, Customer Premises Equipment.
[Implement and verify WAN links]
——————————————————————————–
Question 42:
What command do we use to determine if a Serial interface on a Cisco router is either DTE or DCE?
1. Show interface serialx
2. Show ip interface serialx
3. Show controllers serial x
4. Show role serial x
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: Click here for sample output of this command.
[Implement and verify WAN links]
——————————————————————————–
Question 43:
Which of the following protocols can you find at the Transport layer of TCP/IP model? [Select all that apply]
1. ICMP
2. TCP
3. IP
4. FTP
5. ARP
6. UDP
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2 6
Explanation: The Transport layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with the Transport layer of the OSI model. TCP and UDP is found at these layers of the TCP/IP or OSI model.
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 44:
Our router has restarted and we want to know what caused this. Which command can we use to find out?
1. Show history
2. Show version
3. Show startup-config
4. Show ip protocols
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: When issuing the show version command we the output displays a line 'System restarted by' followed by a reason. This line will give a good indication what the reason was why the router restarted.
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 45:
Which of the following statements are true? [Select all that apply]
1. Switches control broadcast domains
2. Hubs control collision domains
3. Routers control broadcast domains
4. Hubs control broadcast domains
5. Switches control collision domains
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3 5

Explanation: Routers are the border of a broadcast domain because they don't forward broadcasts by default. A switch can control a broadcast domain if VLANs are configured on the switch otherwise they divided the network in separate collision domains.

[Implement a small switched network]
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Question 46:
What is described by a self-propagating piece of software that replicates itself on the network and usually used in DoS attacks?
1. Virus
2. Trojan
3. Spyware
4. Worm
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: A worm is a program that self-propagates on the network without user intervention and is commonly used in DoS attacks.
[Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats]
——————————————————————————–
Question 47:
Which of the following terms describes an IP address that represents a host on an enterprise network?
1. Inside global
2. Inside local
3. Outside global
4. Outside local
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: The inside local address is the IP Address of a host that is local to the enterprise network.
[Implement and verify WAN links]
——————————————————————————–
Question 48:
How many bytes make up the network portion of a class C address?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 6
6. 8
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: The first 3 octets of a class C address represents the network part, an octet is 1 byte long.
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 49:
We want to create an additional VLAN on our Catalyst 2950 switch. Which command do we use?
A) Switch1(config)#vlan 45
Switch1(config-vlan)#end
B) Switch1(config-vlan)#vlan 45
Switch1(config-vlan)#end
C) Switch1(enable)#vlan 45
D) Switch1(config-vlan)#vlan 45
Switch1(config-vlan-database)#end
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1
Explanation: We create a new VLAN in global configuration mode. After creating the VLAN with the vlan VLAN_ID command we exit the VLAN database by using the end command to update this database.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 50:
Which of the following is a mechanism used by TCP/IP to protect buffer space and routing devices?
1. Flow control using windowing
2. Connection establishment and termination
3. Error recovery
4. Multiplexing using ports
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1
Explanation: Flow control using windowing is a mechanism used by TCP/IP to protect buffer space and routing devices in the transport layer of the OSI model.
[Describe the operation of data networks]

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http://www.simulationexams.com/downloads/cisco-tests/ccent/ccna-icnd1-ccent-download.htm

CCENT Final Exam 1 — 50 Question SetQuestion 1:
We want to assign port 3 of our Catalyst 2950 switch to VLAN 3. What command will achieve this?
1. switch(config)#switchport access vlan 3
2. switch#switchport access vlan 3
3. switch(config-if)#switchport vlan 3
4. switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: The switchport access vlan [number] command will configure a switch port to that VLAN. You can also use the switchport access vlan dynamic command to configure the switch port automatically in a certain VLAN depending on the VLAN membership of the incoming packets. For both commands to work properly the switch port needs to be in access mode.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 2:
Which command will allow only ssh connections to the router?
1. transport input telnet ssh
2. transport input ssh
3. transport ssh
4. transport ssh enable
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: The transport input ssh line configuration commands allows ssh connections only to the router.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 3:
Which utility would we use to test all 7 OSI layers?
1. Ping
2. Trace route
3. Telnet
4. Show arp
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: If we can telnet from one device to the other we have proven that the routing (layer 3) and the physical layer are working properly. Since telnet is an application layer utility it gives us confirmation that all 7 OSI layers are working correctly between the two devices.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 4:
You are the network administrator and are given the tasks to plan for the future expansion of the network. You decide to subnet the current network of 172.15.0.0. What will be the subnet mask be if every subnet has to allocate 500 hosts.
1. 255.255.0.0
2. 255.0.0.0
3. 255.255.240.0
4. 255.255.254.0
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: The requirement of having to allocate 500 hosts on each subnet can be achieved by the following: 2^9 = 512. So deducting the broadcast and network address we have 510 possible hosts on each subnet. We used 9 bits to allocate the hosts, this leaves us 7 bits for possible subnets. Those 7 bits in binary is 1111 1110 or 254 in decimal.
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 5:
What address range is commonly used for testing purposes?
1. 10.0.0.0/16
2. Any available IP Address
3. 127.0.0.0/8
4. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: The 127.0.0.0/8 address range in the Class A range is a reserved address range and used for testing purposes.
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 6:
If we have multiple IOS versions on our router, how can we view which ones are available?
1. Show version
2. Show memory
3. Show file systems
4. Show flash:
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: The show flash: command displays the contents of the flash file system.
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 7:
What do you use when you want to display a message to all the terminals connected to a router?
1. banner login
2. banner motd
3. banner exec
4. banner slip-ppp
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: This MOTD banner is displayed to all terminals connected and is useful for sending messages that affect all users (such as impending system shutdowns). Use the no exec-banner or no motd-banner command to disable the MOTD banner on a line. The no exec-banner command also disables the EXEC banner on the line. When a user connects to the router, the MOTD banner appears before the login prompt. After the user logs in to the router, the EXEC banner or incoming banner will be displayed, depending on the type of connection. For a reverse Telnet login, the incoming banner will be displayed. For all other connections, the router will display the EXEC banner. Connection, Menu, and System Banner Commands
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 8:
Given the following IP Address 172.16.0.0/27 what is the 4th subnet's network address, host range and broadcast address? The router is running IOS version 12.2.
1. Subnet address 172.16.1.0, host range 172.16.1.1 – 172.16.1.30, broadcast address 172.16.1.31
2. Subnet address 172.16.0.128, host range 172.16.0.129 – 172.16.0.158, broadcast address 172.16.0.159
3. Subnet address 172.16.0.96, host range 172.16.0.97 – 172.16.0.126, broadcast address 172.16.0.127
4. Subnet address 172.16.1.128, host range 172.16.1.129 – 172.16.1.158, broadcast address 172.16.0.159
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: The default subnet mask for a class B address is /16 so we will have 11 bits for subnets.
12.2 is the IOS mentioned and that has the IP Subnet-Zero command enabled by default.
So the total amount of subnets is 2^11 = 2048 subnets. On each subnet we will have 2^5 – 2 = 30 hosts on each subnet.
Now we will calculate the subnet ranges. The following table is the binary version of the last octet.
subnet bits host bits IP address role
000 00000 172.16.0.0 1st subnet network address
000 00001 172.16.0.1 host # 1
000 00010 172.16.0.2 host # 2
000 11110 172.16.0.30 host # 30
000 11111 172.16.0.31 broadcast address for 1st subnet
001 00000 172.16.0.32 2nd subnet network address
001 00010 172.16.0.34 host # 2 on 2nd subnet
001 11111 172.16.0.63 broadcast address for 2nd subnet
010 00000 172.16.0.64 3rd subnet network address
010 11111 172.16.0.95 broadcast address 3rd subnet
011 00000 172.16.0.96 4th subnet network address
011 11111 172.16.0.127 broadcast address 4th subnet
[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]
——————————————————————————–
Question 9:
Which of the following symbols indicate that a ping was successful?
1. !
2. .
3. ?
4. U
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1
Explanation: The following table explains the output generated by ping:
! – reply received
. – timed out
U – unreachable
C – congestion
? – unknown packet type
& packet lifetime exceeded
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 10:
Which layer of the OSI Model does a gateway operate at?
1. Session
2. Application
3. Network
4. Datalink
5. Physical
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: [Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 11:
What are the 2 sublayers of the Data Link layer of the OSI model?
1. Logical Layer Control
2. Logical Link Control
3. Media Access Control
4. Medium Access Control
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2 3
Explanation:
Layer Name Protocol/Services Details
7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network
6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation
5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions
4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links
3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format
2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium
1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 12:
Which of the following are valid actions of port-security?
1. shutdown
2. restrict
3. protect
4. reset
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 2 3
Explanation: The switchport port-security violation interface configuration command has the following options:
Shutdown (the default)
Restrict
Protect
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 13:
Why would a network administrator implement VLANs?
1. Security
2. Higher latency
3. Performance enhancement
4. No more need for routers
5. Broadcast control
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3 5
Explanation: Here are some common reasons that a company might have VLANs:
Security – Separating systems with sensitive data from the rest of the network decreases the chance that someone will gain access to information they are not authorized to see.
Projects/Special applications – Managing a project or working with a specialized application can be simplified by the use of VLAN that brings all of the required nodes together.
Performance/Bandwidth – Careful monitoring of network use allows the network administrator to create VLANs that reduce the number of router hops and increase the apparent bandwidth for network users.
Broadcasts/Traffic flow – Since a principle element of a VLAN is the fact that it does not pass broadcast traffic to nodes that are not part of the VLAN, it automatically reduces broadcasts. Access lists provide the network administrator with a way to control who sees what network traffic. An access list is a table the network administrator creates that lists what addresses have access to that network.
Departments/Specific job types – Companies may want VLANs set up for departments that are heavy network users (such as Multimedia or Engineering) or a VLAN across departments that is dedicated to specific types of employees (such as managers or sales people).
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 14:
Which of the following describe full-duplex Ethernet?
1. it uses point-to-point connections
2. is limited to speeds of 100Mb
3. stations can transmit and receive at the same time
4. it uses point-to-multipoint connections
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3
Explanation: Using full-duplex Ethernet makes it possible for devices to transmit and receive at the same time which results in bandwidth optimization. Point-to-point connections are used between the device and switch. The IEEE802.x committee designed a standard for full duplex that covers 10BaseT, 100BaseX and 1000BaseX.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 15:
Which of the following would you use if you wanted to transfer data securely across the internet?
1. VPN
2. Leased Line
3. URL Filtering
4. Anti-x
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1
Explanation: A VPN is used to securely transfer data across insecure media, like the Internet.
[Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats]
——————————————————————————–
Question 16:
The address field in a frame-relay header is called?
1. MAC
2. DLCI
3. PVC
4. SVC
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 2
Explanation: The DLCI (Data-Link Connection Identifier) is the address field in a frame-relay header.
[Implement and verify WAN links]
——————————————————————————–
Question 17:
What is the default encapsulation on a Cisco router serial interface?
1. Frame-Relay
2. SDLC
3. PPP
4. HDLC
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: High-Level Data Link Control. Bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol developed by ISO. Derived from SDLC, HDLC specifies a data encapsulation method on synchronous serial links using frame characters and checksums. [Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 18:

What type of cable is shown in the exhibit?
1. AEIA/TIA-232
2. EIA-530
3. X.21
4. V.35
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: [Implement and verify WAN links]
——————————————————————————–
Question 19:
Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for reliable transmission of data segments?
1. Session
2. Application
3. Transport
4. Data-Link
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: Layer Name Protocol/Services Details
7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network
6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation
5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions
4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links
3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format
2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium
1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 20:
Which of the following protocols operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model? [Select all that apply]
1. IP
2. TCP
3. ICMP
4. UDP
5. ARP
6. SPX
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3 5
Explanation: Layer Name Protocol/Services Details
7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network
6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation
5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions
4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links
3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format
2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium
1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here
[Describe the operation of data networks]
——————————————————————————–
Question 21:
What command will change the hostname of a router?
1. router#host name new name
2. router(config-router)#hostname new name
3. router>host name new name
4. router(config)#hostname new name
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: To specify or modify the host name for the network server, use the hostname command in global configuration mode.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 22:
What command do we use to find out how long our router has been online?
1. Show version
2. Show hardware
3. Show uptime
4. Show history
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1
Explanation: The results of the show version command are shown below:
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 23:
802.11a uses which frequency range?
1. 900 MHz
2. 2.4 GHz
3. 5 GHz
4. 7 GHz
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 3
Explanation: The 5GHz frequency band is used by 802.11a wireless standard.
[Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN]
——————————————————————————–
Question 24:
Which of the following protocols are routing protocols? [Select all that apply]
1. BGP
2. FTP
3. OSPF
4. SMTP
5. SNMP
6. RIP
7. NNTP
8. IGRP
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 1 3 6 8
Explanation: Routing protocols are used by intermediate systems to build tables used in determining path selection of routed protocols. Examples of these protocols include Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP), Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (Enhanced IGRP), Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP), Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS), and Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
[Implement a small routed network]
——————————————————————————–
Question 25:
What is the meaning of amber SYST led on a 2960 switch?
1. This is normal operation
2. There is a bridging loop
3. The switch IOS is loading
4. The switch failed its POST
———————————————
Correct answer(s): 4
Explanation: When the switch failed its POST, Power-On Self Test, the SYST led will turn amber and the IOS did not load.
[Implement a small switched network]
——————————————————————————–

Overview: The Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA): Windows Server 2008 certification shows that you have the minimum set of skills needed to hit the ground running, and differentiates you as better able to work with Windows Server 2008 in a real-world business context. This certification validates a set of core Windows Server skills that are relevant across multiple solution areas. MCSA: Windows Server 2008 certification is a prerequisite for earning a MCSE: Private Cloud.

New to Certification, you need to pass the following exams:

Exam 640: Windows Server 2008: Active Directory, Configuring
Exam 642: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring
Exam 646: Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator

Already certified as a Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP): Enterprise Administrator or MCITP: Server Administrator?

You have already earned the MCSA: Windows Server 2008 certification.

Overview: Demonstrate your broad skill sets in building and administrating enterprise-scale data solutions both on-premise or in cloud environments by earning an MCSE: Data Platform certification.

For New Candidates, the following need to be completed:

a. MCSA SQL Server 2012
b. Exam 464: Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
c. Exam 465: Designing Database Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

For Upgrade, the following need to be completed:
a. MCITP: Database Developer 2008 or MCITP: Database Administrator 2008
b. Exam 457: Transition your MCTS on SQL Server 2008 to MCSA: SQL Server 2012?Part1
c. Exam 458: Transition your MCTS on SQL Server 2008 to MCSA: SQL Server 2012?Part 2
d. Exam 459: Transition your MCITP Database Administrator on SQL Server 2008

Required to obtain the following:

MCSA: SQL Server 2012
Exam 466 Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Exam 467 Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

MCSA SQL Server 2012, one need to pass the following:
461 Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
462 Administering a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Database
463 Implementing Data Warehouses with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

EXAM AVAILABILITY

Exams 246, 247, 461, 462, 463, 464, 465, 466, and 467 are expected to be available in June 2012. Exams 457, 458, 459, and 460 are expected to be available by August 2012. Please check back frequently for updated release information.

Until January 31, 2013, Exam 70-659 may be taken in place of 70-247 to count towards the Private Cloud certification.

Frequently Asked Questions

Q.  I have an MCITP on SQL Server 2008. How can I upgrade to an MCSE: Data Platform or MCSE: Business Intelligence certification?

A.

Customers who have achieved an MCITP on SQL Server 2008 will be able to earn an MCSE: Data Platform or MCSE: Business Intelligence certification by passing three exams. To upgrade from an MCITP: Database Administrator 2008 or an MCITP: Database Developer 2008, candidates must pass 70-457, 70-458, and 70-459. To upgrade from an MCITP: Business Intelligence 2008, candidates must pass 70-457, 70-458, and 70-460. These upgrade paths also earn the candidate the Microsoft Certified Solution Associate: SQL Server 2012 certification.

Q.  I'm pursuing an MCITP on SQL Server 2008. Should I finish it, or should I wait for the new certifications?

A.

Achieving an MCITP on SQL Server 2008 enables you to take advantage of a shorter path to upgrade your certification to SQL Server 2012. Additionally, you can demonstrate your skills on both versions of the product.

Q.  I have an MCTS on SQL Server 2008. How can I upgrade to the MCSA: SQL Server 2012?

A.

Customers who have achieved an MCTS on SQL Server 2008 will be able to earn the Microsoft Certified Solution Associate: SQL Server 2012 certification by passing two exams: 70-457 and 70-458.

Q.  I'm pursuing a SQL Server 2008 certification. How long will I have to complete it?

A.

You will be able to earn an MCITP or MCTS on SQL Server 2008 until July 2013.

Q.  Will I be able to earn MCTS certifications for passing exams that count towards the MCSA: SQL Server 2008 certification?

A.

You will continue to earn an MCTS for Exam 70-432 and exam 70-448 until July 2013. At that point, the MCTS certifications for all SQL Server 2008 exams will be discontinued.

Q.  Will each exam have a corresponding exam preparation book?

A.

Some exams will have Training Kits and others will have Exam References.

Q.  Why did you add a whole exam on querying?

A.

By seeing a successful result on this new exam, a hiring manager can be confident that the candidate has real-world querying skills.

Q.  Which types of items can I expect on these exams? Will there be any lab-based items or simulations?

A.

You can expect to see any of the question types shown in our two certification exam demos. We will also be introducing other item types that enable you to demonstrate your skills in a real-world context.

Q.  Is there a specific exam I should start with to pursue a SQL Server 2012 certification?

A.

70-461: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 is the most logical starting point for pursuing a SQL Server 2012 certification. However, exams can be taken in any order.

Q.  When will the exams be available?

A.

Exams are scheduled to be available in mid-June in their live version. Upgrade exams are scheduled to be available by the end of August 2012.

Q.  Why don't the MCSE certification titles include a version number?

A.

Certifications that require recertification are not "versioned" in the sense that they do not reference a product version in the certification name and may cover multiple versions of the technology.

Q.  Are some of these exams required for both MCSE certifications for SQL Server 2012?

A.

Three exams that cover core technical skills are required for both of the SQL Server 2012 MCSE certifications. Passing these three exams earns you an MCSA: SQL Server 2012.

Q.  Why did you combine the database developer and database administrator certifications?

A.

As business needs evolve, so does the demand for a database professional with a broader skillset. To ensure our certification remains relevant in today?s changing IT landscape, we merged the database developer and database administrator certifications into an overall Data Platform certification. This change also aligns with the Microsoft Partner Network Competency.

Please check MS website for up to date list.

New to certification, the following are recommended:
Exam 461: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Exam 462: Administering a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Database?Part1
Exam 463: Implementing Data Warehouses with Microsoft SQL Server 2012?Part 2

You just need to upgrade your certification, then MS recommends the following:
Any MCTS on SQL Server 2008
Exam 457: Transition your MCTS on SQL Server 2008 part 1
Exam 458: Transition your MCTS on SQL Server 2008 part 2

Source: http://www.microsoft.com/learning/en/us/certification/cert-sql-server-mcsa.aspx

The exams that are required for obtaining MCSE Private Cloud cert are:
MCSA Windows Server 2008
Exam 247 - Configuring and Deploying a Private Cloud with System Center 2012
Exam 246 - Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012

MCSA Windows 2008 may be achieved by the following criteria:
Exam 640: Windows Server 2008: Active Directory, Configuring
Exam 642: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring
Exam 646: Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator
By passing the above 3 exams, one may achieve MCSA Windows 2008 certification.

Already certified as a Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP): Enterprise Administrator or MCITP: Server Administrator?

You have already earned the MCSA: Windows Server 2008 certification.

There are some certifications that are nice to have and others that are simply "must haves" in today's competitive job market. In this article, we'll take a look at some of the certifications that IT Pros must have to be relevant today and some that will be gaining importance in years to come.

1. Project Management Professional (PMP)

The role of a project manager is to serve as the intermediary between the IT project team members and the key individuals who are involved with a project. A project manager tries to ensure that a project is completed in a timely manner and within all budgetary and legal constraints. The typical scope of project managers responsibilities include overseeing the processes and methodologies used for the successful completion of the project. The successful project managers can not only help save money for their company, but can also by ensuring all timelines are met (which some would argue is also money). There is a growing demand for skilled and competent IT project managers. These are the PMs who can work through a budgetary crisis and conflicting resource priorities.

2. Microsoft Certified System Engineer (MCSE)

The Microsoft Certified System Engineer (MCSE) certification was Microsoft's premier certification up to 2006. The MCSE has been around since the NT3.5 days (mid-'90s) and for 12+ years old in its current form. We have developed a certain comfort and familiarity with our beloved MCSE. An entire generation of IT Professionals has grown up knowing exactly where an MCSE fits into the certification scheme, and they also have a good idea of what is involved in earning the MCSE and also the financial and professional worth of this certification

This is not to mean that there haven't been additions and other enhancements to the program over the years. The original MCSE was earned on a specific variant of the NT system. So let's say you earned your MCSE on NT 3.51 and then on NT4. You were certified on those two systems - as a Systems Engineer. This same naming approach held true for Windows Server 2000 and Server 2003.

3. A+ (CompTIA) Computing Technology Industry Association

Of all the IT certifications available, few of them can be viewed as verifying and validating the computer skills of entry-level employees. The A+ Certification is one and has been extremely popular since originally released in 1993. The A+ certification validates foundation-level knowledge and skills necessary for a career in PC support.

This certification is viewed as the starting point for a career in the IT field. The CompTIA A+ certification is an international, vendor-neutral certification that proves competence in such computer areas as installation, preventative maintenance, networking, security, and troubleshooting

In January 2010, the ANSI (American National Standards Institute) to ISO (International Organization for Standardization), or ANSI/ISO-approved A+ certification had an expiration period to three years. Prior to this, those earning a CompTIA held the certification for life. With this change, current certificate holders will still have valid certifications for life, but any new certifications earned after December 31, 2010 will expire every three years.

4. Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

The CCNA certification is a highly regarded networking certification from Cisco. It is the second level of Cisco's five-tiered certification track. Having passed the CCNA exam (or exams; how many you take depends on which CCNA certification approach you decide to pursue), you have demonstrated a high degree of competency and have validated your skills in install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN

5. Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP).

The Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) credential is for security managers and professionals who develop policies and procedures in information security. The CISSP certification has become the gold standard in information security certifications and education. Earning and maintaining a CISSP certification is required for many governmental, military, and civilian security positions. The CISSP was the first credential in the field of information security, accredited by the ANSI to ISO Standard 17024:2003. Earning your CISSP certification is not only an objective measure of excellence, but is a globally recognized standard of achievement.

6. IT Infrastructure Library Certification (ITIL?)

What is this ITIL that we hear so much about? The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a foundational process that provides for quality IT Service Management. The success of ITIL is through the use of documented and proven processes that cover the entire IT Service Lifecycle. ITIL v3 is the current version of this widely adopted, best-practices framework for IT management The ITIL Foundation certification is the first of four levels and offers those who are certified a general awareness of the key elements, concepts, and terminology used in the ITIL Service Lifecycle, including the linkages between Lifecycle stages, the processes used, and their contribution to Service Management practices

7. Cisco Certified Voice Professional (CCVP) - CCNP Voice

Pick your voice flavor of choice: Lync Server 2010, Polycom, Avaya, or Cisco to name but a few. They all require highly skilled and knowledgeable people. This is even truer when trying to integrate conferencing or Unified Messaging into the network. VoIP is growing rapidly; businesses are demanding the integration of voice with their messaging and conferencing networks. The problem is that there just aren't that many experienced voice people, especially ones who are skilled in two or more platforms. If you happen to be a Cisco voice guru and have also mastered the intricacies of Lync Server 2010 Unified Messaging and conferencing, than you are set!

8. Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)

A Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) is a skilled security professional who understands the weaknesses and vulnerabilities in target systems and can be trusted to ethically penetrate corporate networks and/or computer systems using the same methods and tools as a malicious hacker in order to discover security problems. Individuals who have earned the CEH certification from EC-council may fulfill job roles such as security officers, auditors, security professionals, site administrators or anyone who is concerned about the integrity of the network infrastructure. The key point is that a CEH has written authorization to probe and possibly penetrate the target network.

9. VMware Certified Professional (VCP)

Virtualization and those who are knowledgeable on virtualization products are in heavy demand. VMware is one of the leading vendors of virtualization products and earning a VMware certification is the first step toward gaining industry-recognized expertise in virtual infrastructure and the industry recognition that goes along with it. The VMware Certified Professional (VCP) demonstrates that you have the skillset to successfully install, manage, and deploy VMware vSphere 5.

10. Security+ (CompTIA)

IT security is one of the fastest-growing fields in IT, and the Security+ certification validates the knowledge of security professionals. The Security+ certification was developed in 2002 to address the rise of computer and information security issues. Rather than an entry-level designation, Security+ has become an industry standard for security certifications. The Security+ certification encompasses such topics as: access control and identity management, application, data and host security, compliance and operational security, cryptography and access control, and threats and vulnerabilities. The United States Department of Defense, the DoDD 8570, IAT Level II certification guidelines list Security+ as one of four choices.

As of January 2010, the ANSI/ISO-approved A+ certification has expiration period of three years. Prior to this, those earning a CompTIA held the certification for life. Current certificate holders will still have valid certifications for life, but any new certifications earned after December 31, 2010 will expire every three years.
11. Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP)

The MCITP certification is the successor to the venerable MCSE. The MCITP certification is tied to a specific product, and the certification will be retired when that particular product is no longer supported. This certification is for IT professionals who work with a variety of products and are involved with advanced planning. You earn your MCITP by taking two or more MCTS (Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist) exams, so while you re earning your MCITP, you will also earn MCTS certifications. Thus, you will earn one or more MCTS certifications on your way to earning an MCITP certification. Currently, there are 18 MCITP certifications available, covering such subjects as SQL, SharePoint, Windows Server, and Lync Server, among others.

Source:
globalknowledge.com/articles/generic.asp?pageid=3059&country=United+States&utm_source=twitter

http://www.examnotes.net

Assign VLAN to interfaces connecting to end user devices.
Add the distribution switches to the VTP management domain
Enable trunking on interfaces connecting to access switches.
Remove VLANs 51 and 52 from the trunk lines.
Configure trunking on the interfaces between distribution switches in both switching blocks.
Remove VLANs 51 and 52 from the trunk lines.
Create the following VLANs on the distribution switches.



Configure DSW142 and 241 as the primary root bridge for the VLANs.
Configure DSW142 and 242 as the secondary root bridge for the VLANs.
Configure Fast EtherChannel on interfaces between distribution switches.
Configure Fast EtherChannel on links to the core switches.
Inter-VLAN Routing:
Using the following table configure Inter-VLAN routing on the distribution switches.



Using Ping verify inter-VLAN connectivity between the VLANs.
MLS:
Configure the distribution switches to participate in multilayer switching.
Verify MLS flow cache.
Packet Tracer Bonus Steps:
Configure the end device as shown in the network drawing
Configure the DC server to provide DHCP scopes for all the domains.
Configure all servers with static IP addresses.
Configure all other devices to use DHCP.
Configure server in Engineering with a static IP address.
Verify devices are receiving IP addresses from the DHCP server
Verify HTTP communications with the web server.
This concludes this lab but I am sure you can expand on this lab. Try adding some filtering.

Source: http: //packettracer.net/2011/06/24/advanced-vlan/

Free Cisco Lab Advanced VLAN Switching



Today network engineers are employing more and more multilayer switched networks. These networks have the advantage of high throughput level 2 switching while retaining the level 3 routing functionality. The secret to the high performance of these networks is the hierarchical design model employing 3 layers Core, Distribution, and Access. This coupled with the advent of VLAN which breaks up collision domains has made the multilayer switched networks the design of choice.

In this Free Cisco Lab Scenario we will configure a complex multilayer switched network employing two switch blocks and all three level of this design topology. We will explore VLANs, Trunking, EtherChannel, and MLS as well as inter VLAN routing.
Before we get started with the lab I would like provide a short description of each of the layers in the hierarchical model.
Core:
The Core layer or Network Backbone primary function is to switch traffic as fast as possible. There should be no manipulation of data at this level such as packet filtering or routing. This layer provides connectivity between switch blocks and access to other blocks like WANs. But the main job is to switch packets as quickly as possible.
Distribution:
The distribution layer provide connectivity between the core and access layers it also differentiate the cor. This layer provides a boundary definition and designates where potentially expensive packet manipulations are handled. The distribution layer is responsible VLAN aggregation, workgroup access, broadcast or multicast domain definition, inter-VLAN routing, media translation, and security. Routing and packet filtering is handled at this layer.
Access:
The access layer provides connectivity for the end users to the network. This layer can provide filtering in the form of access list: however, the key function of this layer is to provide access for the end users to the network. This layer provides shared bandwidth, switched bandwidth, layer 2 services such as VLAN membership, and traffic filtering.

Connect the switches as shown in the network drawing.
Using the following chart configure management access on VLAN1 to the access level switches.
Access Layer:



Using the following chart configure management access on VLAN1 to the distribution level switches.
Distribution:



Configure the VTP domain on all access layer switches and change the VTP mode to server.
Configure all interfaces on access layer switches to the distribution layer switches as trunks.
Remove VLANs 51 and 52 from the trunk lines.
Create the following VLAN from one of the access switches on each of the switch blocks.

Question:

Still not sure about the question but we need to configure the Multilayer Switch so that PCs from VLAN 2 and VLAN 3 can communicate with the Server.

Answer and Explanation

mls>enable
mls# configure terminal
mls(config)# int gi0/1
mls(config-if)#no switchport -> not sure about this command line, but you should use this command if the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
mls(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# exit
mls(config)# int vlan 2
mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# int vlan 3
mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)#exit
mls(config)# ip routing (Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
mls(config)# router eigrp 650
mls(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31

NOTE : THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don?t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration.

in order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.

If the above configuration does not work, you should configure EIGRP with ?no auto-summary? command:
no auto-summary

Source: http: //packettracer.net/2011/09/10/mls-with-eigrp-lab/