Author Topic: A+ Essentials Questions  (Read 13339 times)

Offline certforumz

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A+ Essentials Questions
« on: June 18, 2010, 05:14:34 AM »
1. Windows Vista and Windows 7 Operating Systems feature glass-like design, live task bar thumb nails, dynamic Windows, etc. What is the term given to these modern features?

A. Sidebar
B. Start Menu
C. Aero
D. SSD (Smooth Scrolling Desktop)

Ans: C

Explanation:
Windows Vista and Windows 7 feature a user interface termed as Aero by Microsoft. This is the default interface used by Vista. Aero interface is characterized by the following features:
1.   Glass-like translucent design
2.   Dynamic windows: When you minimize a window, it animates to its place on the taskbar, so it's easier to find when you need it.
3.   High dots-per-inch (dpi) support: Windows Aero supports high-resolution monitors, so you can get a laptop or flat-screen monitor that's smaller in size but shows visually richer, displaying high-resolution, easy-to-read images.
4.   Live taskbar thumbnails: In Windows Aero, live taskbar thumbnail images display the actual contents of both windows that are currently open and those that are minimized in the taskbar. When you rest your mouse pointer on a tile on the taskbar, you'll see the "live" contents of that window without having to bring it to the foreground.
Other features include Windows Flip 3D, and smooth scrolling desktop.

Source: http://www.simulationexams.com/exam-details/aplus-essentials-220-701.htm

2. Which Global state of laptop power management is the normal working state?


              A. G0
              B. G1
              C. G2
              D. G3
              E. S1

Ans: A

Explanation:
The ACPI specification defines the following seven states (so-called global states) for an ACPI-compliant computer-system:

    G0 (S0): Working
    G1, Sleeping subdivides into the four states S1 through S4:
        S1: All processor caches are flushed, and the CPU(s) stop executing instructions. Power to the CPU(s) and RAM is maintained; devices that do not indicate they must remain on may be powered down.
        S2: CPU powered off
        S3: Commonly referred to as Standby, Sleep, or Suspend to RAM. RAM remains powered
        S4: Hibernation or Suspend to Disk. All content of main memory is saved to non-volatile memory such as a hard drive, and is powered down.
    G2 (S5), Soft Off: G2 is almost the same as G3 Mechanical Off, but some components remain powered so the computer can "wake" from input from the keyboard, clock, modem, LAN, or USB device.
    G3 (S6), Mechanical Off: The computer's power consumption approaches close to zero, to the point that the power cord can be removed and the system is safe for dis-assembly (typically, only the real-time clock is running off its own small battery).

3. The maximum Bluetooth range as per Class 1 specification is?
   A.    55 feet
     B.    330 feet
     C.    200 feet
     D.    12 feet

ans: B

Explanation:

    Class 1: range up to 100 meters (in most cases 20-30 meters)
    Class 2: range up to 30 meters (in most cases 5-10 meters)

4. A technician needs to do which of the following before wrapping up the successful installation a new printer at customer premises?
     A.    Educate users about basic functionality.
     B.    Print a test page.
     C.    Reset to default settings.
     D.    Print out a personal email.

ans: A

Explanation: The technician needs to educate the user(s) about the functionality and usage of the printer before finishing with the installation.


5. Which hive of the registry includes information about which file extensions map to particular applications?

     A.    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
     B.    HKEY_USERS
     C.    HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
     D.    HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

ans: C

Explation: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT provides information about file extensions map to a particular application.

6. What tool lets you test Direct X?
     A.    MSConfig.
     B.    DXDiag
     C.    GraphX
     D.    Nvidia Control Panel

ans: B


7. You have been tasked with fixing a problem with a computer display. You talk to the User to try to determine what the problem may be. What do you not ask the User?

     A.    Have any changes been made recently?
     B.    How often does the problem occur?
     C.    Can you replicate the problem?
     D.    What did you do?


Ans:D


8. What type of file has a file extension of .BKF?

     A.    Binding Key File
     B.    Burger King Fries
     C.    Backup file
     D.    Binary Key Function

ans: C

9. A User calls you because he is receiving General Protection Faults. He is working within several programs at the same time to perform his duties and uses two flat panel monitors. One of the programs was written specifically for the company by a
software vendor and the other programs are part of Microsoft Office. What is the most probable reason for receiving this error?

A. He opened an email and a virus infected attachment. His antivirus has failed to maintain the integrity of his system.
B. He has performed an illegal action.
C. He is downloading streaming media to his computer which violates company policy and has been caught.
D. A program has tried to access memory that is in use by another program or a memory address that doesn't exist.

ans:D



Practice Tests:
http://www.simulationexams.com/exam-details/aplus-essentials-220-801.htm
http://www.simulationexams.com/exam-details/aplus-practical-application-220-802.htm
« Last Edit: August 15, 2013, 06:21:02 AM by certforumz »

Offline certforumz

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.A+ Essentials Question 2:
« Reply #1 on: June 18, 2010, 07:08:54 AM »
10. Which specification refers to the family of wireless LAN technologies?

A. 802.3
B. 802.5
C. 802.11
D. 10BaseT

Ans: C

Explanation:

The generic standard that defines wireless LAN technologies is 802.11. Specifically, the following standards exist:
a. 802.11: applies to wireless LANs and provides 1 or 2 Mbps transmission in the 2.4 GHz band.
b. 802.11a: an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LANs and provides up to 54 Mbps in the 5GHz band.
c. 802.11b (initially referred to as 802.11 or Wi-Fi):  an extension to 802.11 that applies to wireless LAN and provides up to 11 Mbps transmission in the 2.4 GHz band.
d. 802.11g:  applies to wireless LANs and provides 20+ Mbps in the 2.4 GHz band.

11. James, your customer calls you from his hotel where he is trying to work out of office. The hotel provides a WiFi connection but he can't seem to connect to it. You direct him to open a command prompt and run IPCONFIG. He responds that he receives the network address of 117.245.2.211. What must James do to connect to the WiFi Access Point?

     A.    Ensure that the wireless connection is configured properly, he was probably using a wired network card last time he was in the office.
     B.    Provide the information for the default gateway so he can reach the DHCP server.
     C.    Configure Ethernet card, and connect RJ-45 cable from the laptop to an ethernet port in his room.
     D.    Ask the front desk at the hotel to enable WPA security

asn: A

Explanation: Note that James computer was configured with a public IP address. Usually, the Wireless Internet clients are assigned private address range and the router that connects to the ISP is assigned a public IP. Configuring the laptop to use the wireless Internet will solve the problem.
« Last Edit: August 27, 2011, 10:31:38 PM by certforumz »

Offline certforumz

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CAT 5, CAT 5e, and CAT 6 LAN Cable Types
« Reply #2 on: August 15, 2013, 04:45:34 AM »
Some Questions and answers that you need to know on LAN cable types, and properties.

Which of the following has a maximum speed of 10 Gbps?

a. CAT 4
b. CAT 5
c. CAT 5e
d. CAT 6

ans. d (CAT 6)


Cat6 cables, also called Category 6 or Cat6 cables, provide lower crosstalk, a higher signal-to-noise ratio, and are suitable for 10GBASE-T (10-Gigabit Ethernet), while Cat5e cables support only up to 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).  Cat5e and Cat6 cables are both backwards compatible, which means newer Cat6 cables can be used with older Cat5e, Cat5 and even Cat3 equipment.

Both Cat5e and Cat6 are twisted pair cables that use copper wires, typically 4 twisted pairs in each cable. However, this made Cat6 cables more rigid; newer cables use other methods to reduce noise and are more flexible. A  cable that meets Cat6 specifications provides significantly lower interference or near end crosstalk (NEXT) in the transmission. It also improves equal level far end crosstalk (ELFEXT), return loss and insertion loss compared with Cat5e.

How to identify


The category is almost always printed on ethernet cables. It is not possible to identify cable categories by color, but Cat6 cables are often thicker than Cat5e because it uses thicker copper wires.

Maximum Length


Both Cat5e and Cat6 cable specifications allow lengths up to 100 meters, but Cat6e has a lower max length (55 meters) when used for 10GBASE-T (10 Gigabit Ethernet). In order to run 10GBASE-T for 100 meters, Category 6a cable, or Augmented Category 6, cables need to be used. Cat6a cables allow performance up to 500 MHz.

If network infrastructure requires covering distances larger than 100 meters, repeaters or switches are required to amplify the signal.

Speed

As mentioned previously, Cat6 cables can be used to power 10GBASE-T, or 10 Gigabit Ethernet, while the maximum that Cat5e cables can support is 1GBASE-T, or 1 Gigabit Ethernet. This is because Cat6 cables perform up to 250 MHz, more than twice that of Cat5e cables (100 MHz).

Cost

The price of ethernet cables vary by length, manufacturer and seller. In general, Cat6 cables are 10-20% more expensive compared with Cat5e cables. However, cables are generally cheap and the speed boost offered by Cat6 cables usually makes the price premium well worth it, even for home use.
« Last Edit: May 02, 2017, 01:00:59 AM by certforumz »

Offline certforumz

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Security flaw - Patcing Policy
« Reply #3 on: August 15, 2013, 05:19:04 AM »
Q.  A new security fix has been released for the Laptop Operating System used by your company. Which of the following can be implemented to avoid exploitation by hackers?

a. Screen password
b. User training
c. Patch Management policy
d. Hard drive encryption

ans. c


This list covers the major categories of things that can be patched or updated in a typical desktop configuration and the order in which you should apply them whenever possible. Patch your systems in this order and your patch management policy will be stronger than ever.

    Bios:

As with servers, start here. Managing BIOS updates across multiple systems is all the easier when they're of the same make and manufacturer, but it requires "hard" downtime: The computer has to be powered down and rebooted to apply the new BIOS, and the administrator usually has to baby-sit each system individually that will be upgraded. Fortunately, many PC manufacturers now allow centralized updates to BIOSes through a management application -- Altiris, for instance, has a management solution for Dell desktops and notebooks that allows remote BIOS updates.

    Device BIOSes:


These include things like BIOS updates for disk controllers, video cards or other devices. Device BIOS updates go into a separate category from regular BIOS updates for two reasons: One, they are easy to overlook and not often considered for desktops; two, you usually cannot update them en masse. For example: If you're administering a group of graphical workstations that need updates to their video card's BIOSes -- and the only way to do that is via a 16-bit DOS-based updater -- you'll probably have to do that by hand for each computer. However, if you could perform the update through a 32-bit Windows application, you could probably push out your Windows patches as you would any other update.

    Device drivers:

As with servers, one of the more common hardware device-driver updates published for a desktop computer is for the network controller. Make sure you test the update ahead of time. If you automate patching on a whole slew of machines with such a driver and the end result is that they're all knocked off the network, your only choice might be to either re-image them from scratch or fix each one manually.

    The OS:
    Patching Windows OSes is the part almost everyone is directly familiar with and it needs relatively little elaboration here. One thing I'll add is something I also wrote about in the server version of this article: If there are device driver updates, they should be examined separately from other updates in case an OEM-provided version of the driver is more urgently needed.

    Middleware:

This normally includes elements such as ODBC drivers but should also include things like the Microsoft .NET Framework. Note that with the .NET Framework, the 1.1 and 2.0 iterations (and the upcoming 3.0 edition as well) exist side-by-side and don't eclipse each other.

    Application patches:
As with the OS and its attendant patches, you can roll out application patches through the usual automated mechanisms, and it should be done only after everything else has already been applied.


Offline certforumz

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Re: A+ Essentials Questions - Safety
« Reply #4 on: August 15, 2013, 06:07:32 AM »
Q. Which of the following a technician is MOST likely to perform to prevent a tripping hazard?

a. Use ESD mat
b. Proper Cable Management
c. Proper Documentation
d. Proper Electrical Grounding

ans. b

Explanation:
Cable management and termination of cabling runs becomes important when working as a PC/Network technician. When working on a network, it’s likely you will be asked to connect a device to it, but how does it all interconnect? The answers to these questions are simple. When working in a Star-based network, you will likely have a central concentrator acting as a backbone for the entire switched and routed network. Because of this, it’s important to understand how cabling runs through your walls, through cubicles and anywhere else through your facilities.

Termination devices such as a 66 block or a 110 block are commonly used to provide termination point and are generally located in wiring closets in your facility. This makes it easy to now take those runs of let’s say 50 cables, and bundle them safely and keep them secure and ultimately run them to the central switch or backbone. In the wiring closed, patch panels are used to connection RJ-45 or RJ-11 connectors so that moving systems becomes quick and easy. No need to cut and recut and crimp and test cable – just move a cable from one port to the other to facilitate a move. As long as your network and cable runs are documented and kept up to date, you will always have a very flexible routine in which to add and remove or move nodes around your network. Devices such as cross connections, terminators, termination blocks and the switch, and router ports you connect together offer a great deal of flexibility and ability to grow to larger sizes without a great deal of complication.

Checkout the attached pdf for complete cabling guide.
http://www.brocade.com/downloads/documents/best_practice_guides/Cabling_Best_Practices_GA-BP-036-02.pdf

Offline certforumz

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A+ Essentials Questions - Laptops
« Reply #5 on: August 15, 2013, 06:32:06 AM »
Q. A user complains that his newly acquired laptop has dim display. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?

a. The display drivers are bad
b. Fn keys
c. BIOS settings
d. Desktop widgets

ans. b

Explanation:

Laptop display. Laptop displays don't have brightness or contrast buttons on the front. For a majority of laptops, there isn't a control for setting the contrast. However, you can set the brightness of many laptops by pressing and holding the Fn key, and then pressing a function key to decrease brightness (Picture of the Decrease brightness button) or increase brightness (Picture of the Increase brightness button). When using Display Color Calibration on a laptop, set the display to the maximum brightness setting.

If the function keys are not working, you may need to verify the manufacturers documentation and update any display/device drivers. Usually, it will solve the problem.

For complete practice tests questions visit: http://www.certexams.com/comptia/a+/a+essentials-exam-details.htm
http://www.practicetests.info/comptia/a+practical-application-practice-test-220-802.htm
« Last Edit: September 03, 2013, 10:47:44 PM by certforumz »

Offline certforumz

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Re: A+ Essentials Questions
« Reply #6 on: September 07, 2013, 04:18:58 AM »
Question 1
Objective: Identify types of network cables and connectors

Which of the following is the definition of an ST fiber connector?

a) Synthetic Tip
b) Standard Tip
c) Steel Tip
d) Straight Tip

Ans: d

Explanation:
An optical fiber connector terminates the end of an optical fiber, and enables quicker connection and disconnection than splicing. The connectors mechanically couple and align the cores of fibers so light can pass. Better connectors lose very little light due to reflection or misalignment of the fibers.

Optical fiber connectors are used to join optical fibers where a connect/disconnect capability is required. The basic connector unit is a connector assembly. A connector assembly consists of an adapter and two connector plugs. Due to the polishing and tuning procedures that may be incorporated into optical connector manufacturing, connectors are generally assembled onto optical fiber in a supplier’s manufacturing facility.

Every fiber connection has two values:

   
  • Attenuation or insertion loss
  • Reflection or return loss.

In many data center applications, small (e.g., LC) and multi-fiber (e.g., MTP) connectors are replacing larger, older styles (e.g., SC), allowing more fiber ports per unit of rack space.

ST is defined by a Straight Tip/Bayonet Fiber Optic Connector
SC is defined as Subscriber Connector or  square connector or Standard Connector. It has snap (push-pull) connector.

Question 2
Objective: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper communication and professionalism

Customer satisfaction is best achieved by:

a) never minimizing the customer’s problems.
b) being defensive.
c) talking to coworkers while interacting with customers.
d) being judgmental.

Ans. a

Question 3
Objective: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media

SCSI hard drives can spin at a maximum speed of:

a) 5,400 rpm.
b) 7,200 rpm.
c)10,000 rpm.
d)15,000 rpm.

Ans. d

Explanation:
Rotational speeds of SCSI drives sold today range from around 4,500RPM to 15,000RPM. Most of them are either 7,200RPM or 10,000RPM, with 15,000RPM becoming affordable. Even though the 10,000RPM drives can generally transfer data faster, they run considerably hotter than their 7,200RPM counterparts. A large fraction of today's disk drive malfunctions are heat-related. If you do not have very good cooling in your PC case, you may want to stick with 7,200RPM or slower drives.

Note that newer drives, with higher areal recording densities, can deliver much more bits per rotation than older ones. Today's top-of-line 7,200RPM drives can sustain a throughput comparable to 10,000RPM drives of one or two model generations ago. The number to find on the spec sheet for bandwidth is “internal data (or transfer) rate”. It is usually in megabits/sec so divide it by 8 and you will get the rough approximation of how much megabytes/sec you can get out of the drive.

SCSI Interface

The majority of SCSI hard drives sold today are Ultra, Ultra-wide, or Ultra160 SCSI. As of this writing (June 2002), the first Ultra320 host adapters and devices become available. The maximum bandwidth of Ultra SCSI is 20MB/sec, and Ultra-wide SCSI is 40MB/sec. Ultra160 can transfer 160MB/sec and Ultra320 can transfer 320MB/sec. There is no difference in max cable length between Ultra and Ultra-wide; however, the more devices you have on the same bus, the sooner you will start having bus integrity problems. Unless you have a well-designed disk enclosure, it is not easy to make more than 5 or 6 Ultra SCSI drives work on a single bus.


Question 4
Objective: Identify connector types and associated cables

Which of the following video connectors can display the HIGHEST resolution?

a) Composite
b) HDMI
c) VGA
d) S-video

Ans. b

Explanation:
Starting around 2003 we saw a rapid adoption of the Digital Visual Interface (DVI) across the digital consumer market. This included DTVs, high definition set -top boxes and computer graphics boards. By the end of that year, well over 500 consumer electronics products featured a DVI connection, with approximately 80% of DTVs shipped to the US using that technology. Later in the year, HDMI also emerged as a digital transmission format, but addressed some specific needs tailored to the consumer electronics market:

   
  • HDMI could carry both uncompressed high definition video (with support for SDTV and HDTV color spaces) along with all existing multi-channel audio formats and even device control data in a single connector
  • HDMI offered "link intelligence" enabling devices to automatically "discover" each other and recognize resolutions & formats
  •   By design, HDMI was intended to be a smaller, more consumer-friendly connection (we would argue this last point due to lack of strain relief and any mechanism to secure the connection in place)
  •   HDMI would be fully compatible with DVI
   
  A single HDMI link, on the other hand, is capable of transferring up to 24 bits of user data at 165 Mpixels per second, resulting in a massive bandwidth of nearly 4 Gbps . This is enough to support the 1080p resolutions of today's newest high-definition displays while still leaving room to transport up to 8 channels of high-resolution audio with 24 bits of resolution and a sampling frequency up to 192 kHz - all across a single HDMI cable. This is well beyond the maximum specifications of even DVD-Audio, which tops out at 6 channels and a sample rate of 96 kHz. The fact is, the HDMI standard includes extra headroom to allow for future upgrades to audio formats.


Question 5
Objective: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper communication and professionalism

While attempting to resolve an issue, a customer talks to the technician about a recent activity that has no relevance on the repair. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response?

a) Ask the customer for a timetable about recent activities.
b) Let the costumer complete their statement and then continue resolving the issue.
c) Document the customer’s statement and continue resolving the issue.
d) State that the activity is not relevant to the repair and continue resolving the issue.

Ans. b

Question 6
Objective: Configure and apply BIOS settings

Which of the following is MOST likely used at a large company? (Select TWO).

a) Windows 7 Home Premium
b) Windows 7 Professional
c) Windows XP Professional
d) Windows 7 Starter
e) Windows Vista Home Premium

Ans. b,c

Question 7
Objective: Compare and contrast network devices, their functions, and features

Hubs, switches, routers, VoIP phones and NIC cards all have which of the following out of the box?

a) PS/2 port
b) IP addresses
c) HDMI
d) MAC addresses

Ans. d

Question 8
Objective: Differentiate among various CPU types and features and select the appropriate cooling method

Which of the following is a best practice when applying thermal paste?

a) Follow the CPU manufacture’s guidelines and apply the correct amount of thermal paste.
b) The more thermal paste applied, the better.
c) Use as much as desired, as long as it is the most popular thermal paste.
d) The less thermal paste applied, the better.

Ans. a

Question 9
Objective: Explain properties and characteristics of TCP/IP

Which of the following is an example of an APIPA address?

a) 10.20.30.40
b) 169.254.43.40
c) 172.30.22.159
d) 192.168.23.110

Ans. b

Question 10
Objective: Given a scenario, install and configure printers

A supervisor has asked a technician to configure some Windows 7 PCs with some pre-established shared printers. The printers are all accessed via a wireless network. Where would a technician go in Windows 7 to add these printers?

a) %SystemDir%\Resources
b) Enter the paths to the printers in the Registry.
c) Start >Devices and Printers >Add a printer
d) Start >Devices and Printers >Add a Device

Ans. b

Question 11
Objective: Given a scenario, install and configure printers

A technician is deploying Windows 7 in a company. The supervisor wants to ensure that greatest flexibility is provided for the employees when printing. Which of the following lists defines all of the supported Windows 7 interfaces?

a) USB, Network, LPT, and Wireless
b) USB, IR, Bluetooth, and Network
c) IR, LPT, and USB
d) IR, LPT, Network, USB, and Wireless

Ans. d

Question 12
Objective: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs

A custom configured PC with surround sound audio, HDMI output, and a compact form factor would be MOST suited to which of the following applications?

a) Thick Client
b) Gaming PC
c) Audio / Video Editing Workstation
d) Home Theater PC

Ans. d

A home theater PC (HTPC) or media center computer is a convergence device that combines some or all the capabilities of a personal computer with a software application that supports video, photo, audio playback, and sometimes video recording functionality. In recent years, other types of consumer electronics, including gaming systems and dedicated media devices have crossed over to manage video and music content. The term "media center" also refers to specialized application software designed to run on standard personal computers.

An HTPC and other convergence devices integrate components of a home theater into a unit co-located with a home entertainment system. An HTPC system typically has a remote control and the software interface normally has a 10-foot user interface design so that it can be comfortably viewed at typical television viewing distances. An HTPC can be purchased pre-configured with the required hardware and software needed to add video programming or music to the PC. Enthusiasts can also piece together a system out of discrete components as part of a software-based HTPC.

Question 13
Objective: Identify various types of networks

Which of the following network types would be MOST likely used on a high school campus?

a) MAN
b) LAN
c) PAN
d) WAN

Ans. b

Question 14
Objective: Compare and contrast laptop features

A laptop docking station does which of the following?

a) Allows the user to synchronize mobile devices without additional hardware
b) Allows the user to connect one device to a monitor, network drop, and USB printer
c) Allows the user to connect wireless devices more efficiently
d) Allows the user to protect sensitive data more effectively

Ans. b

Explanation:
 a Docking station or port replicator or dock provides a simplified way of "plugging-in" an electronic device such as a laptop computer to common peripherals. Because a wide range of dockable devices—from mobile telephones to wireless mice—have different connectors, power signaling, and uses, docks are not standardized and are therefore often designed with a specific make and model of a device in mind.

A docking station can allow a laptop computer to become a substitute for a desktop computer, without sacrificing the mobile computing functionality of the machine. Portable computers can dock and undock hot, cold or standby, depending on the capabilities of the system. In a cold dock or undock, one completely shuts the computer down before docking/undocking. In a hot dock or undock, the computer remains running when docked/undocked. Standby docking or undocking, an intermediate style used in some designs, allows the computer to be docked/undocked while powered on, but requires that it be placed into a sleep mode prior to docking/undocking.

Question 15
Objective: Compare and contrast wireless networking standards and encryption types

Which of the following wireless encryption technologies is the WEAKEST?

a) WPA2
b) WEP
c) WPA
d) TKIP

Ans. b
« Last Edit: September 07, 2013, 05:38:08 AM by certforumz »